كلية الطب الجامعة المستنصرية
Al-Mustansiriah university college of medicine
M.U.C.M

 

 Medical MCQ Caricature                                                      M.U.C.M Chat Guest book

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

These are a number of MCQs in:
Category No. of MCQ Category No. of MCQ
Medicine 10 Anesthesia 1
T.B& Chest Diseases 2 Dermatology 5
Surgery 10 Psychiatry 6
Pediatrics 5 Radiotherapy 1
Obstetrics & Gynecology 10 Radiodiagnosis 3
Ophthalmology 5 Materia Medica 30
Orthopedics 3 Homoeopathic Philosophy 30
E.N.T 4 Repertory 25

Total 150

 

1. Which of the following is a cause of bilateral lower motor neuron facial palsy?
(A) Mumps
(B) Leprosy
(C) Tabes dorsolis
(D) Sarcoidosis 
2. If husband is sex linked receiver and wife is normal which of the following will snuffed from the disease?
(A) Daughters
(B) Grand daughters
(C) Daughter’s son
(D) Son’s daughter 
3. The commonest cause of Cushing’s syndrome is:
(A) Steroids
(B) Adrenal tumour
(C) Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia  (D) Tuberculosis 
4. In nephrotic syndrome, levels of following serum proteins decreases except:
(A) Albumin
(B) Transferrin
(C) Fibrinogin
(D) Ceruloplasmin 
5. Hypokalemia occurs in:
(A) Meningitis
(B) Hepatitis
(C) Osteomylitis
(D) Bronchiectasis 
6. Common presentation of primary Hyperparathyroidism is:
(A) Gallstone
(B) Abdominal pain
(C) Recurrent abortion
(D)) Subtle neurological and psychiatric symptoms 
7. Earliest sensation lost in Diabetic Neuropathy:
(A) Weakness of small muscles of hand.
(B) Temperature
(C) Pain
(D) Vibration 
8. Region of spine most commonly affected in Rheumatoid arthritis:
(A) Cervical
(B) Thoracic
(C) Lumbar
(D) Sacral 
9. Vit-B deficiency causes:
(A) Haemorrhage
(B) C.N.S. affected
(C) Fits
(D) Depression 
10. Diagnostic of fresh M. I.:
(A) Waves
(B) S. T. depression
(C) S.T. elevation
(D) U-waves 
11. Irradiation causes:
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Paget’s disease of breast
(C) Paget’s disease of skin
(D) Ewing ’s tumour 
12.Egg shell - calcification of hilar lymphnodes is characteristically seen in:
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Sarcoidosis
(C) Teratoma
(D) Silicosis 
13. All are seen in right border of heart in chest X-Ray except:
(A) IVC
(B) SVC
(C) Right Atrium
(D) Ascending aorta 
14. What is emission of Radium?
(A) Electron
(B) Gamma Rays
(C) X-Rays
(D) All of the above 
15. In a case of suspected left pleural effusion, X-Ray chest should be done in:
(A) Left lateral position.
(B) Left lateral decubitus position.
(C) Right lateral decubitus position.
(D) A. P. view supine. 
16. The commonest symptom of foreign body in bronchus a child is:
(A) Cough
(B) Vomiting
(C) Dyspnoea
(D) Wheezing 
17. The commonest  of nasopharyngeal carcinoma (Fossa of Rosenmuller) is:
(A) Epistaxis
(B) Hoarseness
(C) Nasal block
(1)) Deafness 
18. The commonest cause of epistaxis in an elderly is:
(A) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(B) Trauma
(C) Hyper tension
(D) Antro choanal polyp 
19. In a 4 year old with ASOM, commonest organism is:
(A) Pneumococcus
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Strepto coccus
(D) H.Influenza 
20. Which of the following is characteristic of T. B. Otitis Media?
(A) Multiple perforations.
(B) Large central perforation.
(C) Marginal perforation.
(D) Attic perforation. 
21 The earliest change noticed in hypertensive Retinopathy is:
(A) Hard exudate
(B) Arterial spasm
(C) Venus spasm
(D) Soft exudate 
22. Most toxic intra ocular foreign body is:
(A) Iron
(B) Copper
(C) Lead
(D) Glass 
23. Sub-conjunctival haemorrhage maybe seen in:
(A) Rabies
(B) Measles
( Mumps
(D) Pertusis 
24. Normal size of optic disc is:
(A) 2.0mm
(B) 2.5mm 1 1.5mm
(D)1.0mm
25. Impaired colour vision is seen in:
(A) Papilloedema
(B) Papillitis
(C) Toxic Amblyopia
(D) Eales disease 
26. The local anaesthesia is contra indicated in:
(A) Diabetic gangrene of foot
(B) Haemophilia
(C) Intermittent Claudication
(D) All of the above 
27. All of the following are Vaso-dilators except:
(A) Cocaine
(B) Mepi vacaine
(C) Procaine
(D) Lignocaine 
28. Colour of oxygen cylinder is:
(A) Blue
(B) Black & White
(C) Grey
(D) Orange 
29. Hallucinations may be produced by:
(A) Halothane
(B) TCE
(C) N
(D) Ketarnine 
30. Broncho spasm is caused by:
(A) Morphine
(B) N
(C) Halothane
(D) Isoflurane 
31. Erosive arthritis is seen in all except:
(A) Gout
(B) Osteo arthritis
(C) SLE
(D) Hyper parathyroidism 
32. In Gout the crystals are:
(A) Calcium phyrophosphate. V Mono sodium urate.
(C) Mono potassium urate.
(D) Double phosphate. 
33. Angular Kyphosis is most commonly produced by:
(A) Rickets
(B) Senile osteoporosis
(C)Tl1 of spine
(D) Hyperparathyroidism 
34. Commonest site of prolapsed intervertebral disc is in between:
(A) C5-C6
(B) C7-Ti
(C) T12 - Li
(D) L4-L5&L5—Si 
35. Plaster of paris chemically is:
(A) Calcium Sulphate.
(B) Calcium Phosphate.
(C) Hydrated Calcium Sulphate.
(D) Hemi hydrated Calcium Sulphate. 
36. Tetanus neonatorum is best prevented by giving injection Tetanus Toxide to:
(A) Foetus after birth.
(B) Mother in 1st trimester.
(C) Mother in 2 & 3 trimester.
(D) Foetus at 3  month of age. 
37. Which of the following is true about Iron deficiency anaemia?
Total Iron Binding                    Serum Iron
Capacity (TIBC)
(A) Decreased                       Decreased
(B) Increased                         Increased
(C) Increased                         Decreased
(D) Decreased                        Increased 
38. The most common complication of mumps in children:
(A) Appendicitis
(B) Pancreatitis
(C) Aseptic Meningitis
(D) Orchitis 
39. In a newborn, liver is 1 cm. enlarged. The child has:
(A) Hemolytic disease
(B) Malaria
(C) Nutritional cirrhosis
(D) Normal development 
40. Hemolytic disease in new born is seen if  Rh factor in:
     MOTHER         FOETUS
(A)   Positive         Negative
(B)   Negative        Positive
(C)   Positive         Positive
(D)   Negative        Negative 
41. Poor prognostic feature in schizophrenia:
(A) Family history of schizophrenia
(B) Late onset
(C) Affective symptoms
(D) Severe precipitating cause 
42. False perception without stimulus is:
(A) Illusion
(B) Delusion
(C) Hallucination
(D) Dela Vj 
43. Alcohol dependence is best indicated by:
(A) Early morning drinking.
(B) Physical con complications
(D) Withdrawal symptoms. 
44. The characteristic symptom of organic psychosis is:
(A) Anxiety
(B) Depression
(C) Hallucination
(D) Transient delusion 
45. In Lithium toxicity, following organs are affected except:
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Brain
(D) Heart 
46. Acrodermatitis is seen due to the deficiency of:
(A) Zinc
(B) Copper
(C) Iron
(D) Pyridoxine 
47. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by:
(A) Epidermophyton
(B) Malezzia furfur
(C) Fungus
(D) Trichophyton 
48. Incubation period of syphilis is:
(A) 2-7days
(B) 15 - 20 days
(C) 9 - 90 days
(D) 2-6 weeks 
49. Umbilicated white pearly papule is seen in:
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Small pox
(C) Herpes Zoster
(D) Molluscum contagiosunt 
50. A patient with single hypopigmented anaesthetic patch with satellite lesions on fore arm. Most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Tuberculoid leprosy
(B) Indeterminate leprosy
(C) Neuritic leprosy
(D) Lepromatous leprosy 
51. Carcinoma cervix may be caused by:
(A) Herpes simplex
(B) Papilloma virus
(C) Syphilis
(D) Trichomones 
52. The least common complication of fibroid is:
(A) Calcification
(B) Red-degeneration
(C) Hyaline change
(D) Malignancy 
53. The commonest cause of post partum Haemorrhage is:
(A) Vaginal laceration
(B) Coagulapathy
(C) Cervical t
(D) Uterine atony 
54. Best sign of Toxaemia of pregnancy:
(A) Diastolic blood pressure> 100 mm / Hg
(B) Urine outpl4t 400 cc
(C) Albuminuria 1 grm per 24 hours
(D) Oedema 
55. Commonest site of ectopic pregnancy is:
(A) Uterus
(B) Cervix
(C) Tubes
(D) Abdomen 
56. The dose of iron prophylaxis in a pregnant female is:
(A) 20 mg.
(B) 60mg.
(C) 120mg.
(D) 180mg. 
57. Iron prophylaxis in a pregnant female is started at:
(A) 6 weeks
(B) 10 weeks
(C) 16 weeks
(D) 18 weeks 
58. Rachety pelvis is characterised by all of the following except:
(A) Wide outlet
(B) Wide interspinous diameter
(C) Leniform brim
(D) False premontory 
59. The commonest cause of vulvovaginitis in children is:
(A) Gonococcus
(B) Trichomoniasis
(C) Oxyuriasis
(D) Candida 
60. Pregnancy can be first diagnosed by ultra sound at:
(A) 2weeks
(B) 5 weeks
(C) 12 weeks
(D) 16 weeks 
61. Tuberculosis of genital tract is commonest in:
(A) Uterus
(B) Cervix
(C) Vulva
(D) Tubes 
62. The commonest congenital anamoly of uterus is:
(A) Bicomuate Bicollis
(B) Bicornuate Unicollis
(C) Unicomuate Bicollis
(D) Unicomuate Unicollis 
63. The commonest ovarian tumour in a lady aged 20-30 years is:
(A) Mucinous cystadenoma
(B) Thecoma
(C) Dysge
(D) Serous cystadenoma 
64. In pregnant woman at 6 weeks have an ovarian mass 5 x 5 cms and, at 15 weeks have an ovarian mass 2 x 2 cms. The diagnosis is:
(A) Graffian follicle cyst
(B) Corpus luteum cyst
(C) Dermoid cyst
(D) Luteum of pregnancy 
65. Longest part of fallopian tube:
(A) Interstitial
(B) Isthmal
(C) Ampullary
(D) Infundibulum 
66. Which of the following disease does not transmit through placenta?
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Measles
(C) Syphilis
(D) Gonorrhoea 
67. Common cause of habitual abortion:
(A) Hormone deficiency
(B) Fault on ovum
(C) Sexual transmitted disease
(D) Uterine abnormalities 
68. Metrorrhagia in fibroid indicates:
(A) Ulceration of sub-mucus fibroid
(B) Ovarian tumour
(C) Twisting
(D) Pregnancy 
69. With severe pain and bleeding of 28 weeks of pregnancy, diagnosis is:
(A) Premature labour
(B) Placenta previa
(C) Accidental haemorrhage
(D) Threatened abortion 
70. Vaccine contra-indicated in pregnancy is:
(A) Tuberculin
(B) Influenza
(C) Typhoid
(D) Hepatitis-B 
71. To differentiate the cause of splenomegaly - best is:
(A) Bone marrow
(B) Splenic pulp smear
(C) Spleno portography
(D) Peripheral smear 
72. Commonest site of peptic ulcer:
(A) Antrum of stomach
(B) Pylorus
(C) Anterior part of duodenum
(D) Posterior part of duodenum 
73. Sub-dural haemorrhage is commonly because of rupture of
(A) Anterior cerebral artery
(B) Middle cerebral artery
(C) Posterior cerebral artery
(D) Dural sinuses
74. Cleft lip is ideally repaired at:
(A) 4weeks
(B) 6n
(C) 9 months
(D) 1 year 
75. Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumours is:
(A) Tongue
(B) Cheek
(C) Palate
(D) Neck
76.The commonest lumbar epidural tumour in children is:
(A ) DERMOID
(B) FIBROMA
(C) Neuroblostoma
(D) Chardoma 
77. Useful test for diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism:
(A) T.S.H.
(B) T3 T4
(C) Biopsy
(D) Scan 
78. The root cause for pyogenic liver abscess is:
(A) Biliary sepsis
(B) Stone
(C) Appendicitis
(D) Ulcerative colitis 
79. 21 years unmarried female has pre-mensfrual fullness of breast is due to:
(A) Fibro adenoma
(B) Fibro adinosis
(C) Galactococle
(D) Abscess 
80. Best artery for coronary angiography:
(A) Brachial
(B) Femoral
(C) Carotid
(1)) Axillary 
81. Painless swelling below hyoid bone - most common diagnosis is:
(A) Thyroglossal cyst
(B) Ectopic thyroid
(C) Lymphnode
(D) Brachial cyst 
82. Not seen in undescended testis:
(A) Hernia
(B) Teratoma
(C) Hydrocele
(D) Seminoma 
83. Most common site of metastasis from cancer kidney is:
(A) Bone
(B) Liver
(C) Brain
(D) Lungs 
84. Most common symptom of cancer bladder:
(A) Haematuria
(B) Urinary incontinence
(C) Pain
(D) Fever 
85. Commonest cause of cerebral infarction:
(A) Thrombosis
(B) Enibojisqt
(C) Arteritis
(D) Cysticercosis
86. Commonest cause of adrenal insufficiency in India is:
(A) T. B.
(B) Auto immune
(C) Steroid withdrawal
(D) Surgery 
87. In post-burn patient, following is seen:
(A) Hypo Kalemic Acidosis
(B) Hypo Kalemic Alkalosis
(C) Hyper Kalemic Alkalosis
D) Hyper Kalemic Acidosis 
88. Bleeding per rectum is present in following except:
(A) Ulcerative colitis
(B) Meckelis diverticulurn
(C) Rectal Carcinoma
(D) Sigmoid Valvulus 
89. Which Hernia is least likely to strangulate?
(A) Direct Inguinal Hernia
(B) Indirect Inguinal Hernia
(C) Femoral Hernia
(D) Umbilical Hernia 
90. Surgery in Varicose Vein is contra indicated:
(A) Varicose vein with leg ulcer.
(B) Deep vein thrombosis.
(C) Multiple incompetent perforators.
(D) All of the above. 
91. Diarrhoea is caused by following except:
(A) Reo virus
(B) Calci virus
(C) Entero virus
(D) Adeno virus 
92. False about filaria is:
(A) Man is intermediate host.
(B) Adult worms are found in lymphatics of man.
(C) Culex is a vector.
(D) Life span of microfilaria is not exactly known. 
93. Cholera true is:
(A) Cholera Toxin acts on GM, receptor.
(B) Mortality is more with eltor.
(C) Activates cycle AMP.
(D) Is neurotoxic. 
94. Gonococcus does not cause involvement of:
(A) Epidydimis
(B) Testis
(C) Prostate
(D) Ant-urethra 
95. True about lepra bacilli are:
(A) Anti leprosy vaccine gives life long protection.
(B) I.N.H. inhibits their growth.
(C) Incubation period is 3-4 months.
(D) Microbacterium leprae can be grown in foot pad of mice. 
96. Most common cause of Acute Coryza:
(A) Influenza virus
(B) R.S.V.
(C) Corona virus
(D) Rhino virus 
97. Immunoglobulin which crosses placental barrier is:
(A )lgG
(B) 1gM
(C) IgD
(D) IgE 
98. For HTLV-III infection (AIDS) - the most specific test is:
(A) ELISA test
(B) Manospot test
(C) Weston blot test
(D) Virus culture 
99. Negri bodies are most often found in:
(A) Midbrain
(B) Hippo campus
(C) Basal ganglia
(D) Frontal cortex 
100. Epidemiologic study of Hepatitis-B:
(A) HBs AG is used
(B) IgG and HBC
(C) HBcAg
(D) HBeAg 
101. The Homeopathic law of nature and a provisional explanation of it:
(A) Sec. 26 - 35
(B) Sec. 36 - 40
(C) Sec. 99 -104
(D) Sec. 52 - 55 
102. Clinical varieties of Acute Diseases ,
(A) Sec. 73
(B) Sec. 153
(C) Sec. 118
(D) Sec 150 
103.Where the aggravation is quick, short and strong with rapid improvement of the patient
(A) 1st observation of Kent
(B) 5th observation of Kent
(C) 3rd observation of Kent
(D) 12th observation of Kent 
104. At the present day advanced thinkers are speaking of the fault state of matter which is immaterial substance:
(A) Boger
(B) Robert
(C) Dunham
(D) J.T.Kent 
105. “The removal of the totality of symptoms means removal of the cause”, is the statement of:
(A) Hahnemann
(B) Close
(C) Dedgeon
(D) J.T.Kent 
106. The “Friend of Health” was written by:
(A) Hahnemann
(B) Kent
(C) J E Park
(D) Socrates 
107. “Whenjni,tealth she could not live without her daily dram consequently could not recover without it “ is the statement of:
(A) Dunham
(B) Close
(C) Boenninghausen
(D) Hahnemann 
108. “Psora - It is the mother of all true chronic diseases except the syphilitic and sycotic” Aphorism:
(A) Sec. 70 - 71
(B) Sec. 120 121
(C) Sec. 81-82
(D) Sec. 76-77 
109. Inappropriately called chronic diseases:
(A) Sec. 69 - 70
(B) Sec. 40 - 42
(C) Sec. 74 - 75 (D) Sec. 77 
110. “Scurvy is produced by a system of diet opposite to this, therefore it may be cured by ‘ a dietetic course. The reverse of that which produced it” is said by:
(A) Dunham
(B) Close
(C) Halinemann
(D) Kent 
111. “The Friend of Health” was published at Frankjoet in the year:
(A) 1792
(B) 1790
(C) 1796
(D) 1810 
112. “The Medicine of experience’ was written by:
(A) Jahr
(B) Boenninghausen
(C) Kent
(D) Hahnemann 
113. “The cell lives for itself” says:
(A) Hahnemarin
(B) Huges
(C) Burnet
(D) Carpenter
114. “The subjects of Anatomy, Physiology are not life, but only results of life” is said by:
(A) Dunham
(B) Close
(C) Kent
(D) Hahnemann 
115. 6th edition of organon consists of Aphorism:
(A) 291
(B) 294
(C) 292
(D) 293 
116. Animal magnetism, mesmarism in Aphorism in 6th Edition:
(A) 288, 289
(B) 278, 279
(C) 281, 282
(D) 286, 287 
117.Massage in aphorism
(A) 280
(B) 270
(C) 260
(D) 290 
118. Diet in acute diseases — Aphorism:
(A) 259 - 261
(B) 267 - 268
(C) 142 - 143
(D) 262 - 263 
119. The manuscript of 6th Edition was left ready by our master ‘Hahnemann in the year’:
(A) 1846
(B) 1842
(C) 1921
(D) 1890 
120. Thus Homeopathy like a candle stick of the Hebrew Tabernacle has been shaped by Hammering not by casting as was aptly remarked by:
(A) C.Dunham
(B) Dudgeen .
(C) Hughes
(D) Hahnemann 
121. Necrosis of bones are found in Kent Repertory in chapter:
 A) Generalities
(B) Extremities
(C) In (A)&(B)
(D) Not given
122. I Repertory in English language was published by:
A) J.T.Kent
(B) Dr. Lippe
(C) Dr.C.Hering
(D) Dr. P. Schmidth 
123. He is the father of Homeopathic repertory:
(D) Hahnemann
(A) Boenninghausen
(B) Jahr
(C) Lippe 
124. In Kent Repertory where do we find Milk Absent?
(A) Generalities
(B) Glands
(C) Chest
(D) Not given 
125. He was the first person to evaluate remedies:
(A) Boenninghausen
(B) Kent
(C) Hahnemann
(D) Jahr 
126. Blue Leucorrhoea — in Kent Repertory:
(A) Ambragracia
(B) Sepia
(C) Hydrastis
(D) Alumina 
127. First Card Repertory available to profession in the year:
(A) 1892 4
B) 1982
(C) 1888
(D) 1891 
128. Synthetic repertory in the year:
(A) 1982
(B) 1892
(C) 1897
(D) 1981 
129. In Kent Repertory - cross-reference given for HUMOROUS is:
(A) Mood
(B) Jesting
(C) Joy
(D) Joyous 
130. Awkwardness is found in B. B. C. R.:
(A) Extremities
(B) Mind
(C) Sensorium
(D) Sensation 
131. If vertigo and headache be very persistent or prostration be prolonged after Nat Mur , will relieve:
(A) Gels
(B) Apis
(C) Glonoine
(D) Nux-vom 
132. Believes that she is going to die soon that she cannot be helped:
(A) Aconite
(B) Hydrastis
(C) Agnus-C
(D) Hell 
133. Irritable pains are accompanied by excitement:
(A) Aconite
(B) Chain
(C) Coffea
(D) Causticum 
134. Convulsions of single muscle:
(A) Ignitia
(B) Cup-Met
(C) Mag-phos
(D) Bufo 
135. Tension is the key-note of:
(A) Aconite
(B) Arg-Nit
(C) Gels
(D) Ox-Acid 
136. 4-8 P.M. aggravation in Bowel nosodes:
(A) Morgon gartner
(B) Morgon pure
(C) Proteus
(I)) Bacillus-7 
137. Morning diarrhoea in evening constipation:
(A) Alles
(B) Sulph
(C) Bryonia
(D) Nat-Mur 
138. Suppressed menses leads to cardiac complaints:
(A) Abrotinum
(B) Bryonia j(C)
(D) Phos.
139. Aversion to mother:
(A) Raphanus
(B) Silicia
(C) Caust
(D) Thuja 
140. Back-ache is relieved by lying on abdomen. One drug is Acitic Acid; another is:
(A) Nat-Mur
(B) Medo
(C) Kalicarb
(D) Tuber 
141. Slow in learning to walk and talk due to sluggish development of mind:
(A) Agaricus
(B) CaI-carb
(C) Aethusa
(D) Bar-carb 
142. Marasmus with retracted abdomen:
(A) Abrotinum
(B) Nat-Mur
(C) Cal-carb
(D) Cal-phos 
143. Angry at trifles and perfectly harmless things, but is soon sorry for it:
(A) Nat-Mur
(B) Ignitia
(C) Cham
(D) Meze 
144. Asthama worse in foggy weather as per Boereik:
(A) Nat-Suip
(B) Duic.
(C) Rhus-Tox
(D) Hypericum 
145. Complaints from eating melons and drinking impure water as per Boereik:
(A) Zingeber
(B) Pyrogen
(C) Duic.
(D) Nat-Sulp 
146. Cal-carb and bar-carp - Drug relation:
(A) Concordant
(B) Incompatable
(C) Antidote
(D) Complementary 
147. All Acid drugs are thirstless except:
(A) Acid-pic
(B) Lac-Acid
(C) Oxalic Acid
(D) Acitic Acid 
148. 3 P.M. and 3 A.M. aggravation - Drug is:
(A) Puls
(B) Apis
(C) Kali-carb
(D) Thuja 
149. Cough is better by lying down and aggravated in day time:
(A) Hyos
(B) Medo
(C) Pulse
(D) Manganum 
150. The pains are tearing and aching - the seat of the disease is:
(A) Serous membranes
(B) Mucus membrane
(C) Tendons
(D) Muscles